(1) The spores in bryophytic plant represent the first cell of the:
(a) Gametophytic generation
(b) Sporophytic generation
(c) Asexual generation
(d) All of these
(e) None of these
(2) Algal members of classes Euglenophyceae and chlorophyceae are similar in the:
(a) Cell wall structure
(b) Reserve food
(c) Pigment composition
(d) Structure of flagella
(e) None of these
(3) Crystocarp is a structure developed after fertilization in:
(a) Blue green algae
(b) Actinomycetes
(c) Bryophetes
(d) Red algae
(e) None of these
(4) Rice belongs to family:
(a) Malvaceae
(b) Fabiaceae
(c) Solonaceae
(d) Poaceae
(e) None of these
(5) Gametophyte of fern is called:
(a) Prothallus
(b) Protocorm
(c) Thallus
(d) Gametangia
(e) None of these
(6) The sieve elements are major component of:
(a) Cambium
(b) Apical meristem
(c) Xylem
(d) Phloem
(e) None of these
(7) Which one of these is a parasite:
(a) Sunflower
(b) Begonia
(c) Biden
(d) Brasica
(e) None of these
(8) Sporophytic generation is borne upon gametophyte and is dependent on it. This feature is present in:
(a) Cycas
(b) Adiantam
(c) Equisetum
(d) All of these
(e) None of these
(9) Double fertilization is a typical characteristic of:
(a) Algae
(b) Fungi
(c) Bryophytes
(d) Angiosperm
(e) All of these
(10) Marchantia reproduces vegetatively by:
(a) Apospory
(b) Gemma Cup
(c) Budding
(d) All of these
(e) None of these
(11) Plant cell wall is composed of:
(a) Cellulose
(b) Polypeptides
(c) Phospholipids
(d) Starch
(e) None of these
(12) Stele in which primary vascular tissues are arranged in discrete strands around a pit is called:
(a) Prostele
(b) Radial stele
(c) Centric stele
(d) Eustele
(e) None of these
(13) In which the following edible part is obtained from the Rhizome:
(a) Potato
(b) Ginger
(c) Sugar beet
(d) Onion
(e) None of these
(14) Fertilization within an unopened flower is called:
(a) Cleistogramy
(b) Cleistocary
(c) Isogamy
(d) Oogamy
(e) None of these
(15) Meiosis takes place during:
(a) Gamete formation
(b) Zygote formation
(c) Cambium formation
(d) All of these
(e) None of these
(16) Edible fungus is:
(a) Penicillium
(b) Agaricus
(c) Aspergillus
(d) Phythium
(e) None of these
(17) Speciation is:
(a) Origin of species
(b) Evolution of species
(c) Identification of species
(d) Preservation of species
(e) None of these
(18) Collective name given to sporangia in fern is:
(a) Sorus
(b) Sporangium
(c) Spathe
(d) Sporangiophore
(e) None of these
(19) Small, spherical protein bodies surrounded by starch deposits in chloroplasts of many algae are:
(a) Lecoplasts
(b) Ribosomes
(c) Microsomes
(d) Pyenidium
(e) None of these
(20) Heterocysts are present in:
(a) Volvox
(b) Clostridium
(c) Cycas
(d) E-Coli
(e) None of these
(21) Enzyme Fumarase convert fumaric acid into:
(a) Citric acid
(b) Isocitric acid
(c) lactic acid
(d) Glutamic acid
(e) None of these
(22) Plants growing under saline conditions are:
(a) Holophytes
(b) Mesophytes
(c) Hygrophytes
(d) Halophytes
(e) None of these
(23) The first product of CO2 fixation in C3 plants is:
(a) Phosphoglyceric acid
(b) Glycolic acid
(c) Citric acid
(d) Glutamic acid
(e) None of these
(24) Mutations are most likely to be caused by:
(a) 1AA
(b) CO2
(c) Dextrose
(d) Glycine
(e) None of these
(25) Most of the water absorption in plants takes place through:
(a) Root caps
(b) Root hairs
(c) Stomata
(d) All of these
(e) None of these
(26) Oxygen produced during photosynthesis comes from:
(a) CO2
(b) Carboxylic acid
(c) Glucose
(d) Protein
(e) None of these
(27) Chloroplasts in bundle sheath cells of C4 plants do not contain:
(a) Grana
(b) Stroma
(c) Thylakoids
(d) All of these
(e) None of these
(28) A group of major biotic communities occupying a climatic region of earth is called:
(a) Biome
(b) Biosphere
(c) Biotype
(d) Phenotype
(e) None of these
(29) In which group of plants stomata open during night:
(a) C3 plants
(b) C4 plants
(c) Halophytes
(d) CAM plants
(e) None of these
(30) The occurrence of vegetation in layers is known as:
(a) Scarification
(b) Stratification
(c) Physiognomy
(d) Pattern
(e) None of these
(31) A plasmid is a:
(a) DNA
(b) RAN
(c) Protein
(d) Microsome
(e) None of these
(32) The total Genetic material within a cell is:
(a) Gene bank
(b) Genetic load
(c) Genome
(d) Genetic Marker
(e) None of these
(33) Ribsomal RNA helps in:
(a) Replication
(b) Transcription
(c) Translation
(d) Translocation
(e) None of these
(34) Which one of the following ions plays most important role in stomatal movement?
(a) K+
(b) Ca++ (c) Cl–
(d) Na+
(e) None of these
(35) Dormancy in seeds may be due to:
(a) Hard seed coat
(b) Chemical Inhibitors
(c) Immature embryo
(d) All of these
(e) None of these
(36) How many ATP molecules are produced when one hexose sugar molecule is converted into two molecules of pyruvic acid during glycolysis?
(a) 15
(b) 26
(c) 28
(d) 36
(e) None of these
(37) Open sea constituting about 90% of total ocean surface is called:
(a) Pelgaic zone
(b) Littoral zone
(c) Intertida zone
(d) Neritic zone
(e) None of these
(38) Which one of the following RNAs is non-genetic and brings amino acids to the site of protein synthesis?
(a) m RNA
(b) t RNA
(c) hn RNA
(d) pre-r RNA
(e) None of these
(39) Transfer of material , from higher concentration to lower concentration across semipermeable membrane is called:
(a) Mass flow
(b) Osmosis
(c) Ascent of Sap
(d) Diffusion
(e) None of these
(40) Optimum phosphorus uptake by roots takes place at:
(a) Neutral pH
(b) Acidic pH
(c) Alkaline pH
(d) All of these
(e) None of these
(41) The Green Algae belongs to:
(a) Cyanochloranta
(b) Chlorophycophyta
(c) Charophyta
(d) Cryptophycophyta
(e) None of these
(42) If the gametes and gametangia in Fungi are of unequal size, they are termed as:
(a) Heterothallic
(b) Homothallic
(c) Isogametes
(d) Anisogametes
(e) None of these
(43) Chlorophyll ‘d’ exists in:
(a) Pyrrophyta
(b) Phaeophyta
(c) Cryptophyta
(d) Rhodophyta
(e) None of these
(44) Which of the type of chlorophyll is rare in Xanthophyceae and has been determined in only two of its genera:
(a) chlorophyll ‘a’
(b) chlorophyll ‘e’
(c) chlorophyll ‘b’
(d) chlorophyll ‘d’
(e) None of these
(45) The Axoneme in an algal filament is composed of ____________ fibrils:
(a) five
(b) seven
(c) eleven
(d) one
(e) None of these
(46) An antibiotic called “Chlorellin” is derived from:
(a) Chara
(b) Spirogyra
(c) Volvox
(d) Chlorella
(e) None of these
(47) In Pakistan, Volvox is found abundantly in water ponds during the months of:
(a) March and April
(b) May and June
(c) November and December
(d) January and February
(e) None of these
(48) B
ecause of extracting ______ from water and depositing it in their walls different species of Chara are referred to as “Stone Worts:
(a) Sodium chloride
(b) Calcium carbonate
(c) Potassium sulphate
(d) Potassium nitrate
(e) None of these
(49) Puccinia graminis causes _______ in wheat:
(a) Yellow or stripe rust
(b) Brown or orange leaf rust
(c) Black or stem rust
(d) Loose green smut
(e) None of these
(50) The zero and one stages of Puccinia graminis are produced on:
(a) Triticum aestivum
(b) Hordeum Vulgare
(c) Sorghum Vulgare
(d) Barberis Vulgaris
(e) None of these
Monday, 4 April 2016
LECTURER-SUBJECT SPECIALIST ECONOMICS PAST PAPERS
1. Income elasticity of demand for an inferior good is:
(a)Positive (b)Zero (c)Both (a) & (b) (d)None of these
2. Convexity means averages are ________________ than extremes:
(a) Worse (b) Positive (c) Better (d)None of these
3. Sum of MPC and MPS equals:
(a)2 (b)3 (c)4 (d)None of these
4. During the Liquidity Trap, LM curve is:
(a)Less elastic (b)Positive (c)Perfectly elastic (d)None of these
5. The dominant factor of production is:
(a)Energy (b)Labour (c)Technology (d)None of these
6. GDP deflator is a ratio between:
(a)Input prices (b)Output prices (c)Both (a) & (b) (d)None of these
7. During monopoly, the equilibrium condition is:
(a)MC=P (b)MC>MR (c)MC=MR (d)None of these
8. During perfect competition, the firm would earn a normal profit when:
(a)AC>AR (b)AR
9. Roy’s identity is applied on:
(a)Food (b)Bread (c)Utility (d)None of these
10. The following is the narrowest measure of supply of money:
(a)M2 (b)M3 (c)M1 (d)None of these
11. A positive externality in which a consumer wishesto possess a good in part because others do:
(a)Supply (b)Concavity (c)Money demand (d)None of these
12. The profit function is of:
(a)Homogeneous of degree = 1 (b)Homogeneous of degree = 2
(c)Homogeneous of degree = 0 (d)None of these
13. The derivative of cost function withrespect to output price provides:
(a) Input supply function (b)Output supply function
(c)Both (a) & (b) (d)None of these
14. A strategy that is optimal, no matter what an opponent does:
(a)Dominant firm (b)Duopoly (c)Dominant strategy (d)None of these
15. A devaluation of a currency takes place under
(a)Flexible exchange rate (b)Fixed exchange rate
(c)Clean floating system (d)None of these
16. Nominal interest rate is:
(a)Inflation minus Tax (b)Tax plus Indirect Tax
(c)Real interest rate minus Inflation (d)None of these
17. An un-anticipated increase in money supply is neutral during:
(a)Short run period (b)Medium run period
(c)Both (a) & (b) (d)None of these
18. A rise in general price level shifts the LM curve:
(a)Down and to the right (b)Up and to the left
(c)Positively sloped (d)None of these
19. Decrease in tax shiftsthe IS curve:
(a)Down and to the left (b)Negatively sloped
(c)Up and to the right (d)None of these
20. Gross National Product is:
(a)GDP – NNP (b)NFA – GNI (c)GDP – NX (d)None of these
21. Foreign aid comprises of:
(a)Grants (b)Loans (c)Both (a) and (b) (d)None of these
22. Per capita income of Pakistan during the fiscal year 2011-12 was:
(a)$ 1258 (b)$1372 (c)$1025 (d)$ 1050 (e)None of these
23. The GINI coefficient is measure of:
(a)Inequality (b)Poverty (c)Growth (d)Development (e)None of these
24. During the last decade income inequality in rural areas of Pakistan has:
(a)Increased (b)Decreased (c)Remained unchanged (d)None of these
25. The share of agriculture in GDP is:
(a)21% (b)10% (c)12% (d)17% (e)None of these
26. During 1970’s the planning was concerned to:
(a)Industrial planning (b)Export promotion (c)Import substitution
(d)Structural planning (e)None of these
27. National Savings as a percent of GDP during 2011-2013 was:
(a)10.7 (b)13.1 (c)9.5 (d)8.8 (e)None of these
28. The growth rate of manufacture sector during 2011-12 was:
(a)1.7% (b)4.1% (c)5.2% (d)3.6% (e)None of these
29. The best measure of economic development among following is:
(a)NNP (b)HDI (c)GDP (d)All of these (e)None of these
30. The main objective of Monetary or fiscal policy is:
(a)Economic stablization (b)Efficiency (c)Both (a) and (b) (d)None of these
31. Direct taxes during 2011-12 were around of total tax revenue.
(a)37% (b)63% (c)15% (d)None of these
32. Public debt as a percent of GDP for 2011-12 was:
(a)58% (b)65% (c)50% (d)45% (e)None of these
33. Govt. of Pakistan borrows from:
(a)Internal sources (b)External sources (c)Pakistani banks
(d)All of these (e)None of these
34. Growth rate of agriculture sector during 2011-12 was:
(a)3.1% (b)5.4% (c)2.9% (d)2.1% (e)None of these
35. Nationalization of industries took place during the regime of:
(a)ZA Bhutto (b)Zia ul Haq (c)Ayub Khan (d)None of these
36. Development economics is concerned with:
(a)Efficient allocation of scarce resources (b)Economic, social and political institutions.
(c)Imperfect resource and commodity markets. (d)(a) and (b) only (e)None of these
37. The last land reforms in Pakistan were introduced in:
(a)1972 (b)1977 (c)1981 (d)1958 (e)None of these
38. IMF advances loan for:
(a)Construction (b)Balance of payment (c)Travelling (d)None of these
39. Sixth five year plancovers the period:
(a)1965-70 (b)1960-65 (c)1988-93 (d)1983-88 (e)None of these
40. The unemployment rate in Pakistan during 2010-11 was:
(a)7% (b)5% (c)3% (d)6% (e)None of these
41) Demand curve in case of Giffen good is:
(a) Negatively sloped (b) Vertical
(c) Positively sloped (d) None of these
42) Price consumption curve in case of complementary goods is:
(a) Downward sloping (b) Vertical
(c) Upward sloping (d) None of these
43) In case of two goods, following utility approach, a consumer is in equilibrium when:
(a) MUx/Px = MUy/Py (b) MUx/Px < MUy/Py
(c) MUx/Mx > MUy/Py (d) Both (b) and (c)
44) In short run:
(a) Labour is variable (b) Both labour and capital are variable
(c) Both labour and capital fixed (d) None of these
45) When MC is equal to AC, the AC:
(a) Increases (b) Decreases
(c) Remains constant (d) None of these
46) Normal profit, excess profit and loss of the firm depends on level of:
(a) Average costs in short run (b) Total costs in short run
(c) Marginal costs in short run (d) All of these
47) In case of perfect competition, the sellers are:
(a) Two (b) A few
(c) Very large (d) None of these
48) The firm is in equilibrium when:
(a) Slope of TC = Slope of TR (b) Slope of TC is less than slope of TR
(c) Slope of TC is more than slope of TR (d) None of these
49) The Marginal Revenue Product of labour MRPLis:
(a) MR x MP (b) MR / MP
(c) MR – MP (d) Both (b) and (c)
50. In case of imperfect competition the MRPLis the:
(a) Supply of labour curve (b) Demand for labour curve
(c) Both of these (d) None of these
(a)Positive (b)Zero (c)Both (a) & (b) (d)None of these
2. Convexity means averages are ________________ than extremes:
(a) Worse (b) Positive (c) Better (d)None of these
3. Sum of MPC and MPS equals:
(a)2 (b)3 (c)4 (d)None of these
4. During the Liquidity Trap, LM curve is:
(a)Less elastic (b)Positive (c)Perfectly elastic (d)None of these
5. The dominant factor of production is:
(a)Energy (b)Labour (c)Technology (d)None of these
6. GDP deflator is a ratio between:
(a)Input prices (b)Output prices (c)Both (a) & (b) (d)None of these
7. During monopoly, the equilibrium condition is:
(a)MC=P (b)MC>MR (c)MC=MR (d)None of these
8. During perfect competition, the firm would earn a normal profit when:
(a)AC>AR (b)AR
9. Roy’s identity is applied on:
(a)Food (b)Bread (c)Utility (d)None of these
10. The following is the narrowest measure of supply of money:
(a)M2 (b)M3 (c)M1 (d)None of these
11. A positive externality in which a consumer wishesto possess a good in part because others do:
(a)Supply (b)Concavity (c)Money demand (d)None of these
12. The profit function is of:
(a)Homogeneous of degree = 1 (b)Homogeneous of degree = 2
(c)Homogeneous of degree = 0 (d)None of these
13. The derivative of cost function withrespect to output price provides:
(a) Input supply function (b)Output supply function
(c)Both (a) & (b) (d)None of these
14. A strategy that is optimal, no matter what an opponent does:
(a)Dominant firm (b)Duopoly (c)Dominant strategy (d)None of these
15. A devaluation of a currency takes place under
(a)Flexible exchange rate (b)Fixed exchange rate
(c)Clean floating system (d)None of these
16. Nominal interest rate is:
(a)Inflation minus Tax (b)Tax plus Indirect Tax
(c)Real interest rate minus Inflation (d)None of these
17. An un-anticipated increase in money supply is neutral during:
(a)Short run period (b)Medium run period
(c)Both (a) & (b) (d)None of these
18. A rise in general price level shifts the LM curve:
(a)Down and to the right (b)Up and to the left
(c)Positively sloped (d)None of these
19. Decrease in tax shiftsthe IS curve:
(a)Down and to the left (b)Negatively sloped
(c)Up and to the right (d)None of these
20. Gross National Product is:
(a)GDP – NNP (b)NFA – GNI (c)GDP – NX (d)None of these
21. Foreign aid comprises of:
(a)Grants (b)Loans (c)Both (a) and (b) (d)None of these
22. Per capita income of Pakistan during the fiscal year 2011-12 was:
(a)$ 1258 (b)$1372 (c)$1025 (d)$ 1050 (e)None of these
23. The GINI coefficient is measure of:
(a)Inequality (b)Poverty (c)Growth (d)Development (e)None of these
24. During the last decade income inequality in rural areas of Pakistan has:
(a)Increased (b)Decreased (c)Remained unchanged (d)None of these
25. The share of agriculture in GDP is:
(a)21% (b)10% (c)12% (d)17% (e)None of these
26. During 1970’s the planning was concerned to:
(a)Industrial planning (b)Export promotion (c)Import substitution
(d)Structural planning (e)None of these
27. National Savings as a percent of GDP during 2011-2013 was:
(a)10.7 (b)13.1 (c)9.5 (d)8.8 (e)None of these
28. The growth rate of manufacture sector during 2011-12 was:
(a)1.7% (b)4.1% (c)5.2% (d)3.6% (e)None of these
29. The best measure of economic development among following is:
(a)NNP (b)HDI (c)GDP (d)All of these (e)None of these
30. The main objective of Monetary or fiscal policy is:
(a)Economic stablization (b)Efficiency (c)Both (a) and (b) (d)None of these
31. Direct taxes during 2011-12 were around of total tax revenue.
(a)37% (b)63% (c)15% (d)None of these
32. Public debt as a percent of GDP for 2011-12 was:
(a)58% (b)65% (c)50% (d)45% (e)None of these
33. Govt. of Pakistan borrows from:
(a)Internal sources (b)External sources (c)Pakistani banks
(d)All of these (e)None of these
34. Growth rate of agriculture sector during 2011-12 was:
(a)3.1% (b)5.4% (c)2.9% (d)2.1% (e)None of these
35. Nationalization of industries took place during the regime of:
(a)ZA Bhutto (b)Zia ul Haq (c)Ayub Khan (d)None of these
36. Development economics is concerned with:
(a)Efficient allocation of scarce resources (b)Economic, social and political institutions.
(c)Imperfect resource and commodity markets. (d)(a) and (b) only (e)None of these
37. The last land reforms in Pakistan were introduced in:
(a)1972 (b)1977 (c)1981 (d)1958 (e)None of these
38. IMF advances loan for:
(a)Construction (b)Balance of payment (c)Travelling (d)None of these
39. Sixth five year plancovers the period:
(a)1965-70 (b)1960-65 (c)1988-93 (d)1983-88 (e)None of these
40. The unemployment rate in Pakistan during 2010-11 was:
(a)7% (b)5% (c)3% (d)6% (e)None of these
41) Demand curve in case of Giffen good is:
(a) Negatively sloped (b) Vertical
(c) Positively sloped (d) None of these
42) Price consumption curve in case of complementary goods is:
(a) Downward sloping (b) Vertical
(c) Upward sloping (d) None of these
43) In case of two goods, following utility approach, a consumer is in equilibrium when:
(a) MUx/Px = MUy/Py (b) MUx/Px < MUy/Py
(c) MUx/Mx > MUy/Py (d) Both (b) and (c)
44) In short run:
(a) Labour is variable (b) Both labour and capital are variable
(c) Both labour and capital fixed (d) None of these
45) When MC is equal to AC, the AC:
(a) Increases (b) Decreases
(c) Remains constant (d) None of these
46) Normal profit, excess profit and loss of the firm depends on level of:
(a) Average costs in short run (b) Total costs in short run
(c) Marginal costs in short run (d) All of these
47) In case of perfect competition, the sellers are:
(a) Two (b) A few
(c) Very large (d) None of these
48) The firm is in equilibrium when:
(a) Slope of TC = Slope of TR (b) Slope of TC is less than slope of TR
(c) Slope of TC is more than slope of TR (d) None of these
49) The Marginal Revenue Product of labour MRPLis:
(a) MR x MP (b) MR / MP
(c) MR – MP (d) Both (b) and (c)
50. In case of imperfect competition the MRPLis the:
(a) Supply of labour curve (b) Demand for labour curve
(c) Both of these (d) None of these
LECTURER-SUBJECT SPECIALIST CHEMISTRY PAST PAPERS
1) When an electron is brought from infinite distance close to the nucleus of the atom, the energy of
Electron-nucleus system?
(a) increases to a smaller negative value (b) decreases to a greater negative value
(c) decreases to a smaller positive value (d) increases to a greater positive value
2) The probability of finding the electron in the nucleus is:
(a) 100% due to forces of attraction (b) finite for all orbitals
(c) Zero for all orbitals (d) Zero for some orbitals and finite for others
3) When Zn metal is kept in CuSO4solution, copper is precipitated and ZnSO4is formed because:
(a) Atomic number of Zinc is smaller than copper
(b) Atomic number of Zinc is larger than copper
(c) Standard reduction potential of Zinc is more than that of copper
(d) Standard reduction potential of Zinc is less than that of copper
4) Electrolytes when dissolved in water, dissociate into their constituent ions, the degree of
dissociation of an electrolyte increases with the:
(a) Presence of a substance yielding common ion
(b) Decreasing temperature
(c) Decreasing concentration of electrolyte
(d) Increasing concentration of electrolyte
5) There is a large positive entropy change for an exothermic reaction. It means that the reaction
will be:
(a) possible at high temperatures only (b) impossible at all temperatures
(c) possible at low temperatures only (d) possible at all temperatures
6) Which of the following statement is false?
(a) the temperature of the system will fall if an exothermic reaction is isolated from its
surroundings
(b) Energy is absorbed when one compound is converted into another with higher heat content
(c) the temperature of the system is likely to fall if heat is absorbed during the course of a
reaction(d) None of these
7) pH + pOH of a solution is:
(a) 7 (b) Zero (c) 14 (d) -14
8) The compound that is not Lewis acid:
(a) BF3 (b) BaCl2 (c) SnCl4 (d) AlCl3
9) Ore of Aluminium:
(a) Calamine (b) Dolomite (c) Bauxite (d) Limestone
10) Oxidation number of S in sulphuric acid:
(a) Four (b) Six (c) Two (d) Eight
11) d-block elements form coordination compounds because of:
(a) Small Cationic size (b) Large ionic Charge
(c) Unfilled d-orbitals (d) Filled d-orbitals
12) Brass is an alloy of:
(a) Cu and Zn (b) Cu, Ni, Zn (c) Cu and Ni (d) Cu, Al, Zn
13) Urea is a high quality nitrogenous fertilizer with:
(a) 76% nitrogen (b) 46% nitrogen (c) 66% nitrogen (d) 26% nitrogen
14) Diamond is:
(a) Good conductor of electricity (b) Bad conductor of electricity
(c) Bad conductor on heating (d) Good conductor on heating
15) Carbon monoxide is poisonous gas because it:
(a) replaces oxygen from lungs (b) forms carboxy haemoglobin
(c) Forms carbon dioxide with oxygen (d) has a sweet smell
16. Rust is:
(a) FeO + Fe(OH)2 (b) Fe2O3 + Fe(OH)2 (c) Fe2O3 (d) Fe2O3 + Fe(OH)3
17) Calcium Carbide reacts with water to give:
(a) Methane (b) Ethylene (c) Acetylene (d) Ethane
18. Which of the following substituent deactivates benzene ring and is o, p-directing?
(a) __ NH2 (b) __ Cl (c) __ OCH3 (d) __ OH
19) Which of the following is most readily nitrated?
(a) Toluene (b) Benzaldehyde (c) Nitrobenzene (d) Benzoic Acid
20) Ketones can be prepared by reaction of Grignard reagent with:
(a) Acid Amides (b) Acid Chloride (c ) Carboxylic Acid (d) Epoxides
21) Which of the following statements about the order of reaction is true?
(a) The order of a reaction can only be determined by experiment.
(b) A second order reaction is also bimolecular
(c) The order of reaction must be a positive integer
(d) The order of reaction increases with increasing temperature.
22 Polysaccharides yield many monosaccharides on:
(a) Hydration (b) Oxidation (c) Reduction (d) Hydrolysis
23) Which of the following is not aromatic?
(a) Benzene (b) cyclooctatetraene (c) Pyridine (d) Phenol
24) Which of the following is most basic?
(a) H2O (b) NH3 (c) CH3NH2 (d) CH3OH
25) Which of the following has lowest pH?
(a) CH3COOH (b) CF3COOH (c) ClCH2COOH (d) Cl3C COOH
26) The equilibrium of two readily interconvertible isomers is called:
(a) Stereoisomerism (b) Metamerism (c) Tautomerism (d) Polymorphism
27) Which of the following compounds exhibit geometrical isomerism?
(a) 1-Pentene (b) 2-Pentene (c) 2-methyl –2-Pentene (d) 2-methyl –2-Butene
28) Which of the following gives a tertiary alcohol when treated with Grignard reagent:
(a) HCHO (b) CH3CHO (c) C3H5CHO (d) CH3COCH3
29) Which of the following tests is not used to identify aldehydes?
(a) Tollen’s test (b) Benedict solution test (c) Fehling solution test (d) Ammonia test
30) Which is incorrect about alkaloids?
(a) Naturally Occuring (b) Possess a hetrocyclic ring
(c) Exhibit biological action (d) acidic in nature
31) Which of the followings will not give iodoform test:
(a) Acetone (b) Ethylacohol (c) Benzaldehyde (d) Acetaldehyde
32) The reaction of aniline with bromine water gives:
(a) o-bromoaniline (b) p-bromoaniline (c) 2,4-dibromoaniline (d) 2,4,6-tribromoaniline
33) The reaction of tripalmitin, with sodium hydroxide is called:
(a) Hydrolysis (b) Saponification (c) Esterification (d) Combustion
34) Which one is not Petrochemical?
(a) Napthalene (b) Mineral Oil (c) Wax (d) Table Salt
35) Chemical adsorption:
(a) is exothermic (b) is irreversible (c) takes place at high temp. (d) All of these
36) The most commonly used absorbent for chromatographic separation of organic compound is:
(a) Activated charcoal (b) Fuller’s Earth (c) Alumina (d) Silica gel
37) Grignard reagent is:
(a) Organo Zinc halide (b) Organo cadmium bromide
(c) n-Butyl Lithium (d) Organo Magnesium halide
38) Which one of the following is not a petrochemical.
(a) Cumene (b) Paraffin (c) Aluminum Chloride (d) Epoxy resin
39) The term syndiotactic is related to which one of the following?
(a) Synthetic detergents (b) Table Salt (c) Paraffin (d) Polyprophylene
40 Which one of the following is used as an Antibiotic?
(a) Patulin (b) Insulin (c) Soserine (d) Trypsin
41) Heroin is diacetate of:
(a) Papaverine (b) Morphine(c) Codeine (d) Thebaine
42) A reaction that practically is given by all organic compounds.
(a) Elimination (b) Friedel-Craft ecylation (c) Combustion (d) Rearrangement
43) Which functional group is present in polyester shirt?
(a) Lactam (b) Acid Chloride (c) Ether (d) Ester
(xviii) Which statement is true for Halogen (Halo-group)?
(a) Activating and O, p–directing (b) Activating and m–directing
(c) Deactivating and O, p–directing (d) None of these.
(44) Which one of the following can be synthesized from Aryl Diazonium Salt?
(a) Furfural (b) Carbylamine (c) Biphenyl (d) THF
(45 The Methyl group in Methyl Magnesium Iodide can act as:
(a) CH3Radical (b) CH3Carbonium ion (c) CH3Carbanion (d) Can react with a base
46) Nylon is a copolymer of:
(a) Urea and Formaldehyde (b) Phenol and Formaldehyde
(c) Hexamethylenediamine and adipic acid (d) Vinyl Chloride and Vinylalcohol
(47) Which of the following would react with one mole of Grignard’sreagent to yield a ketone?
(a) R R RCON ′ ′ ′ (b) R RCONH ′(c) RCONH2(d) RCOOH
48) Glyceraldehyde has one ofthe following properties:
(a) One asymmetric carbon atom(b) Two asymmetric carbon atoms
(c) A meso compound (d) Four asymmetric carbon atoms
49 The ant
ifreeze compound ethylene glycol has the formula:
(a) C2H5OH (b) CH3OH (c) C2H4(OH)2(d) C3H5(OH)3
50 Distillation is the best method for separating the two substances in which of the following:
(a) Water and salt dissolved
(b) water and a substance which does not dissolve in it
(c) Two liquids that have different boiling points
(d) Two solids that have different melting points.
Electron-nucleus system?
(a) increases to a smaller negative value (b) decreases to a greater negative value
(c) decreases to a smaller positive value (d) increases to a greater positive value
2) The probability of finding the electron in the nucleus is:
(a) 100% due to forces of attraction (b) finite for all orbitals
(c) Zero for all orbitals (d) Zero for some orbitals and finite for others
3) When Zn metal is kept in CuSO4solution, copper is precipitated and ZnSO4is formed because:
(a) Atomic number of Zinc is smaller than copper
(b) Atomic number of Zinc is larger than copper
(c) Standard reduction potential of Zinc is more than that of copper
(d) Standard reduction potential of Zinc is less than that of copper
4) Electrolytes when dissolved in water, dissociate into their constituent ions, the degree of
dissociation of an electrolyte increases with the:
(a) Presence of a substance yielding common ion
(b) Decreasing temperature
(c) Decreasing concentration of electrolyte
(d) Increasing concentration of electrolyte
5) There is a large positive entropy change for an exothermic reaction. It means that the reaction
will be:
(a) possible at high temperatures only (b) impossible at all temperatures
(c) possible at low temperatures only (d) possible at all temperatures
6) Which of the following statement is false?
(a) the temperature of the system will fall if an exothermic reaction is isolated from its
surroundings
(b) Energy is absorbed when one compound is converted into another with higher heat content
(c) the temperature of the system is likely to fall if heat is absorbed during the course of a
reaction(d) None of these
7) pH + pOH of a solution is:
(a) 7 (b) Zero (c) 14 (d) -14
8) The compound that is not Lewis acid:
(a) BF3 (b) BaCl2 (c) SnCl4 (d) AlCl3
9) Ore of Aluminium:
(a) Calamine (b) Dolomite (c) Bauxite (d) Limestone
10) Oxidation number of S in sulphuric acid:
(a) Four (b) Six (c) Two (d) Eight
11) d-block elements form coordination compounds because of:
(a) Small Cationic size (b) Large ionic Charge
(c) Unfilled d-orbitals (d) Filled d-orbitals
12) Brass is an alloy of:
(a) Cu and Zn (b) Cu, Ni, Zn (c) Cu and Ni (d) Cu, Al, Zn
13) Urea is a high quality nitrogenous fertilizer with:
(a) 76% nitrogen (b) 46% nitrogen (c) 66% nitrogen (d) 26% nitrogen
14) Diamond is:
(a) Good conductor of electricity (b) Bad conductor of electricity
(c) Bad conductor on heating (d) Good conductor on heating
15) Carbon monoxide is poisonous gas because it:
(a) replaces oxygen from lungs (b) forms carboxy haemoglobin
(c) Forms carbon dioxide with oxygen (d) has a sweet smell
16. Rust is:
(a) FeO + Fe(OH)2 (b) Fe2O3 + Fe(OH)2 (c) Fe2O3 (d) Fe2O3 + Fe(OH)3
17) Calcium Carbide reacts with water to give:
(a) Methane (b) Ethylene (c) Acetylene (d) Ethane
18. Which of the following substituent deactivates benzene ring and is o, p-directing?
(a) __ NH2 (b) __ Cl (c) __ OCH3 (d) __ OH
19) Which of the following is most readily nitrated?
(a) Toluene (b) Benzaldehyde (c) Nitrobenzene (d) Benzoic Acid
20) Ketones can be prepared by reaction of Grignard reagent with:
(a) Acid Amides (b) Acid Chloride (c ) Carboxylic Acid (d) Epoxides
21) Which of the following statements about the order of reaction is true?
(a) The order of a reaction can only be determined by experiment.
(b) A second order reaction is also bimolecular
(c) The order of reaction must be a positive integer
(d) The order of reaction increases with increasing temperature.
22 Polysaccharides yield many monosaccharides on:
(a) Hydration (b) Oxidation (c) Reduction (d) Hydrolysis
23) Which of the following is not aromatic?
(a) Benzene (b) cyclooctatetraene (c) Pyridine (d) Phenol
24) Which of the following is most basic?
(a) H2O (b) NH3 (c) CH3NH2 (d) CH3OH
25) Which of the following has lowest pH?
(a) CH3COOH (b) CF3COOH (c) ClCH2COOH (d) Cl3C COOH
26) The equilibrium of two readily interconvertible isomers is called:
(a) Stereoisomerism (b) Metamerism (c) Tautomerism (d) Polymorphism
27) Which of the following compounds exhibit geometrical isomerism?
(a) 1-Pentene (b) 2-Pentene (c) 2-methyl –2-Pentene (d) 2-methyl –2-Butene
28) Which of the following gives a tertiary alcohol when treated with Grignard reagent:
(a) HCHO (b) CH3CHO (c) C3H5CHO (d) CH3COCH3
29) Which of the following tests is not used to identify aldehydes?
(a) Tollen’s test (b) Benedict solution test (c) Fehling solution test (d) Ammonia test
30) Which is incorrect about alkaloids?
(a) Naturally Occuring (b) Possess a hetrocyclic ring
(c) Exhibit biological action (d) acidic in nature
31) Which of the followings will not give iodoform test:
(a) Acetone (b) Ethylacohol (c) Benzaldehyde (d) Acetaldehyde
32) The reaction of aniline with bromine water gives:
(a) o-bromoaniline (b) p-bromoaniline (c) 2,4-dibromoaniline (d) 2,4,6-tribromoaniline
33) The reaction of tripalmitin, with sodium hydroxide is called:
(a) Hydrolysis (b) Saponification (c) Esterification (d) Combustion
34) Which one is not Petrochemical?
(a) Napthalene (b) Mineral Oil (c) Wax (d) Table Salt
35) Chemical adsorption:
(a) is exothermic (b) is irreversible (c) takes place at high temp. (d) All of these
36) The most commonly used absorbent for chromatographic separation of organic compound is:
(a) Activated charcoal (b) Fuller’s Earth (c) Alumina (d) Silica gel
37) Grignard reagent is:
(a) Organo Zinc halide (b) Organo cadmium bromide
(c) n-Butyl Lithium (d) Organo Magnesium halide
38) Which one of the following is not a petrochemical.
(a) Cumene (b) Paraffin (c) Aluminum Chloride (d) Epoxy resin
39) The term syndiotactic is related to which one of the following?
(a) Synthetic detergents (b) Table Salt (c) Paraffin (d) Polyprophylene
40 Which one of the following is used as an Antibiotic?
(a) Patulin (b) Insulin (c) Soserine (d) Trypsin
41) Heroin is diacetate of:
(a) Papaverine (b) Morphine(c) Codeine (d) Thebaine
42) A reaction that practically is given by all organic compounds.
(a) Elimination (b) Friedel-Craft ecylation (c) Combustion (d) Rearrangement
43) Which functional group is present in polyester shirt?
(a) Lactam (b) Acid Chloride (c) Ether (d) Ester
(xviii) Which statement is true for Halogen (Halo-group)?
(a) Activating and O, p–directing (b) Activating and m–directing
(c) Deactivating and O, p–directing (d) None of these.
(44) Which one of the following can be synthesized from Aryl Diazonium Salt?
(a) Furfural (b) Carbylamine (c) Biphenyl (d) THF
(45 The Methyl group in Methyl Magnesium Iodide can act as:
(a) CH3Radical (b) CH3Carbonium ion (c) CH3Carbanion (d) Can react with a base
46) Nylon is a copolymer of:
(a) Urea and Formaldehyde (b) Phenol and Formaldehyde
(c) Hexamethylenediamine and adipic acid (d) Vinyl Chloride and Vinylalcohol
(47) Which of the following would react with one mole of Grignard’sreagent to yield a ketone?
(a) R R RCON ′ ′ ′ (b) R RCONH ′(c) RCONH2(d) RCOOH
48) Glyceraldehyde has one ofthe following properties:
(a) One asymmetric carbon atom(b) Two asymmetric carbon atoms
(c) A meso compound (d) Four asymmetric carbon atoms
49 The ant
ifreeze compound ethylene glycol has the formula:
(a) C2H5OH (b) CH3OH (c) C2H4(OH)2(d) C3H5(OH)3
50 Distillation is the best method for separating the two substances in which of the following:
(a) Water and salt dissolved
(b) water and a substance which does not dissolve in it
(c) Two liquids that have different boiling points
(d) Two solids that have different melting points.
Sunday, 3 April 2016
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